Reader’s Digest - Are you ready to know the most important MH CET Law Legal Reasoning Questions? Read the blog to learn about the important Legal Reasoning questions and topics for MH CET Law 2024.

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The Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law is an objective-question exam with 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) divided into five sections: English, General Knowledge and Current Affairs, Mathematics, Logical and Analytical Reasoning, and Legal Aptitude and Legal Reasoning.

Here we have answered the most asked questions about the MH CET Law Legal Reasoning Questions:

• How many questions are asked in the Legal Reasoning section? It comprises 40 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and has a weightage of 40 marks in the MH CET Law.
• What is the marking scheme of the Legal Aptitude Legal Reasoning section? As per MH CET Law Exam Pattern, one mark is allotted for each correct answer, with no negative marking for the wrong answer.

MH CET Law Legal Reasoning Questions - Overview 

Based on the MH CET Law Syllabus 2024, the Legal Aptitude and Legal Reasoning section for the MH CET Law 2024 consists of various topics that are mentioned below: 

• Study of Law
• Legal Aptitude and Problem-solving Ability
• Legal Prepositions
• Set of Facts from Case Laws
• Analysis-based Questions
• Indian Constitution
• Indian Penal Code
• Indian Contract Act
• Family Law
• Law of Torts
• Legal Fundamental and Terms
• Legal Maxims
• Important Landmarks and Supreme Court Judgements

Important Legal Reasoning Questions for MH CET Law 2024

Here are some questions that you can refer to for MH CET Law Preparation:

Question 1: Which among the following is the author of the book “Off the Bench”?

1. Mr Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
2. Mr Justice A. R. Lakshman
3. Mr Justice J. S. Verma
4. Mr Justice Y. V. Chandrachud

Answer: (a) Mr Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer

Question 2: By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the Right to Education is made a Fundamental Right?

1. 84th
2. 86th
3. 81st
4. 83rd

Answer: (b) 86th

Question 3: Y attempts to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.

1. Y is not guilty of attempting to theft because the box was empty.
2. Y is guilty of an attempt to commit theft
3. Y is guilty of trespass.
4. Y is not guilty of any offence.

Answer: (b) Y is guilty of an attempt to commit theft.

Question 4: Principle: Willful rash driving is an offence.

 Fact: Mr Tiwari was driving his car after mistakenly drinking alcohol. Police booked him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?

1. No, because Mr Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.
2. No, this is not a negligent act.
3. Yes, because Mr Tiwari was driving rashly.
4. Yes, because the police can arrest a person driving rashly.

Answer: (a) No, because Mr Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.

Question 5: What is the meaning of the maxim “Actus me invito factus non est meus actus”?

1. The act done by me against my will is not my act
2. My act is my will
3. The guilty intention is required for the crime
4. None of the above

Answer: (a) The act done by me against my will is not my act.

Question 6: What are the substantive defences available to an accused in criminal law?

1. Excusable Defences (Lacking of mens - rea)
2. Justifiable Defences (Justified in doing the act)
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

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Answer: (c) Both a and b

Question 7: What is the ‘Magna Carta’?

1. A ship
2. The Declaration of Independence of the United States
3. A treaty that established the International Criminal Court
4. The first English Legal Charter relating to the fundamental rights of the citizens

Answer: (d) The first English Legal Charter relating to the fundamental rights of the citizens

Question 8: How many High Courts are operating in the country?

1. 29
2. 24
3. 26
4. 25

Answer: (d) 25

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Question 9: The maxim “actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea” is developed by?

1. Equity Courts
2. Common Law Courts
3. Privy Council
4. Supreme Court of India

Answer: (b) Common Law Courts

Question 10: Who was the first female High Court judge in India?

1. Justice Ruma Pal
2. Justice Leila Seth
3. Justice Aruna Suresh
4. Justice R.P. Desai

Answer: (b) Justice Leila Seth

Question 11: In which case did the largest bench of thirteen judges of the Supreme Court sit?

1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. Ashok Thakur v. Union of India
3. Kesavananda Bharati v. Union of India
4. There has never been such a large bench in any case of the Supreme Court

Answer: (c) Kesavananda Bharati v. Union of India

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Question 12: What is the meaning of the Latin maxim 'ignorantia facit doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excused?

1. Ignorance of fact is excusable, but ignorance of the law is not
2. Ignorance of the law is excusable, but ignorance of fact is not
3. Both Ignorance of law and Ignorance of fact is not excusable
4. Both Ignorance of fact and Ignorance of the law are excusable

Answer: (a) Ignorance of fact is excusable, but ignorance of the law is not 

Question 13: What does the maxim "doli incapax" mean?

1. To enact something contrary to the law
2. Let the punishment be proportioned to the crime
3. The person is deemed incapable of forming the intent to commit a crime or tort, especially because of age
4. None of the above

Answer: (c) The person is deemed incapable of forming the intent to commit a crime or tort, especially because of age.

Question 14: Mens Rea mean?

1. Guilty Act
2. Guilty mind
3. Sudden Provocation
4. None of the above

Answer: (b) Guilty Mind

Question 15: Legal Principles:

1. The doctrine of pleasure owes its origin to common law. The rule in England was that a civil servant could hold his office during the pleasure of the crown, and the service would be terminated any time the crown wished; the same rule is applied in India.
2. Except as expressly provided by the constitution, every person who is a member of a defence service or a civil service of the union or an all-Indian service or holds any post connected with defence or any civil post under the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President, and every person who is a member of a civil service of a State or holds any civil post under a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor of the State.
3. The procedure laid down in Article 311 is intended to assure, first, a measure of security of tenure to government servants covered by the Article and, secondly, to provide certain safeguards against arbitrary dismissal or removal of a government servant or reduction to a lower rank.
4. Where there is an infringement of Article 311, the orders passed by the disciplinary authority are video ab-initio and, in the eye of the law, no more than a piece of waste paper and the government servant will be deemed to have continued in service or the case of reduction in rank, in his previous post throughout.
5. A reasonable opportunity for a hearing must be given to the government servant. Further, no order of dismissal or removal can be made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority.

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Factual Situation: Rahul was appointed to the civil services after appearing for the qualification exam. He was appointed as Tahsildar by Collector. He is sincere and hard-working, and some people in his department do not like him and always try to plot against him. Rahul was very confident about his work and hoped to get a promotion soon. One day, the department laid a trap as a result of which allegations of bribery were made against Rahul. The charges against him aggrieved Rahul. The department initiated disciplinary proceedings against him. He was not heard in the disciplinary proceeding. As a result of this, he was suspended from his post by a Sub-Divisional Magistrate.

He challenged his suspension as he contended that he could not present his case; therefore, the suspension is arbitrary and video-ab-initio. Decide the legality of his suspension.

1. The suspension is valid as it does not fall in the category of dismissal and, therefore, is not subject to Article 311.
2. The suspension is void as Rahul was not allowed to hear before the disciplinary committee.
3. The suspension is void as an officer subordinate suspended Rahul to his appointing officer.
4. The suspension is valid as Rahul is a civil servant who holds the post at the pleasure of the Governor and, therefore, can be removed at any time.

Answer: (a) The suspension is valid as it does not fall in the category of dismissal and, therefore, is not subject to Article 311.

Question 16: Legal Principles:

1. Section 84 of IPC specifically discusses the Insanity or, in a broader manner, the unsound mind of an individual while committing a crime.
2. This section, in brief, explains that any act committed by a person of an unsound mind will not be actionable, and they won’t be held liable for any offence while in the state of Insanity.
3. The unsoundness of the mind should be to such an extent that it makes the offender completely incompetent in knowing the nature of the act.
4. The factor that the person is suffering from a mental illness is by itself not sufficient to prove that he s insane.
5. The presumption under the defence would be that the person was sane or of a sound mind while committing the offence, and the contrary would need to be proved by the accused.

Factual Situation: Shanti is a very calm and kind girl. She always helped everyone with all her might. One day she realizes she keeps forgetting the memory of a certain duration. She goes to the doctor, who tells her that she has a certain mental condition due to which she cannot remember anything of a particular duration and told her that she is mentally unfit.

When she gets a fit of insanity, she does not understand any of her acts and cannot understand the consequence of her actions. Due to this, the family of Shanti decided to get her hospitalized. They thought that it would help in her recovery.

Shanti got angry after listening to the decision of her family member and thought of killing her parents, who were forcing her to get admitted. She angrily killed her parents and was scared after seeing their dead bodies. She hid their bodies in her garden and burnt all the clothes with blood stains.

1. She is not guilty as she was declared mentally unfit by the doctor and, therefore, is covered under the defence of Insanity, which is an established fact, and the prosecution will have to prove otherwise.
2. She is not guilty as she got scared after seeing the dead bodies of her parents, which shows that she did know that act she was doing was wrong and, therefore, can claim the defence of Insanity, but she will have to prove her Insanity.
3. Shanti is guilty of murder as she killed in a fit of anger, and the prosecution has to prove that she was not insane.
4. Shanti is guilty of murder as she knew her act was wrong, and she will be presumed to be sane, which need not be proved by the prosecution.

Answer: (d) Shanti is guilty of murder as she knew her act was wrong, and she will be presumed to be sane, which need not be proved by the prosecution.

Question 17: Legal Principle:

1. The media cannot usurp the jurisdiction of the courts, which alone have the constitutional authority to decide the guilt/innocence of a person or decide on the content, quality, or width of any right available to any citizen/accused/suspect.
2. Media cannot be given the right to speculate on the outcomes of ongoing investigations, court proceedings, or criminal trials.

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Facts: Naman Arora was a well-known prime-time journalist for a media outlet. Suraj, Dileep’s brother-in-law, pleaded against Naman, stating that the media outlets subjected Dileep to media trials while reporting on a murder plot case and a sexual assault case. Suraj alleged that the media channel is publishing fabricated allegations against the accused and their associates in the said cases.

As a result, he requested an injunction to prevent the media from covering the court proceedings. According to the petitioner, the top police officers investigating the case were leaking out materials allegedly collected during the investigation, including those from the in-camera trials. Despite the orders of the Magistrate Court and Session Court concerning the publication of details about court proceedings, Reporter TV, as well as the other media portals, had been reporting these details.

Choose the best option as per the legal principle given above.

1. This clearly interferes with the administration of justice, besides causing prejudice to the petitioner.
2. Naman Arora is liable as he defamed the celebrity without having any jurisdiction.
3. Naman Arora is not liable because he has not passed any judgment; merely pointing out a possible outcome is his duty as a news anchor.
4. Naman Arora is liable as he leaked information that was supposed to be kept confidential.

Answer: (a) This clearly interferes with the administration of justice, besides causing prejudice to the petitioner.

Question 18: Legal Principle:

1. No person can insist on a settlement procured by intimidation.
2. A settlement procured under threat, duress, or intimidation is void.

Factual Situation: A had lost her husband in a car accident. A approached the insurance company to claim the amount that was due to her in the event of the death of her husband. The insurance company repudiated her claim for some flimsy reason, and A sued the company in court. On the day of the hearing, B, an officer from the company, threatened A that if she did not settle the case within a certain amount, she would not get anything from the company. A fearing for the safety and future of her family agreed.

1. The terms of settlement so obtained by B are valid since A agreed on them.
2. The settlement terms so obtained are valid as the insurance company offered to pay a certain amount to A.
3. The settlement terms are invalid as the company's officer threatened A with dire consequences if she disagreed.
4. The settlement terms are not valid as the claim was repudiated before, and the case instituted by A now does not hold any ground.

Answer: (c) The settlement terms are not valid, as the company's officer threatened A with dire consequences if she disagreed.

Question 19: Legal Principle:

1. When the parties have entered into a valid contract, some benefits have been passed under it. Subsequently, the contract is discovered to be video, and the party who has received the benefits must restore them to the other. 
2. The obligation to refund exists even when there is no provision in the agreement to that effect.

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Factual Situation: An engineering institute was opened in the city for students to pursue their degrees in the discipline. The admission procedure had begun, and around 32 students had already paid their fees to the administration. Meanwhile, the state government discovered that the university administration had not taken the necessary permit and No objection certificate to run the institute. Hence, before the classes could commence, the government ordered the institute to stop its operations and shut down. Is the institute liable to compensate the students who have already deposited the fee at admission?

1. Yes. the institute is liable to make good for the benefits they received as the contract is now void due to the lack of subject matter.
2. No. the institute is not liable to compensate for the fee received by them.
3. The institute can only return a partial fee keeping the rest as a security deposit.
4. Since the contract was not void from the outset, the institute cannot refund the amount.

Answer: (a) Yes. the institute is liable to make good for the benefits they received as the contract is now void due to the lack of subject matter.

Question 20: Legal Principle: When a contract is made for the benefit of the third party with a legitimate interest in enforcing it, it can be enforced by the third party.

Factual Situation: A and B were partners in a firm. They had contracted with each other in the event of the death of one of the partners. The other partner will indemnify the deceased partner’s spouse for the loss of income. A few years later, A died, but B did not indemnify A’s wife for the loss of income as was mentioned in the contract. Can she sue B for the performance of the contract?

1. No. A’s wife was not a party to the contract, and hence she cannot sue B for the performance of the contract.
2. Yes. the contract was entered into for the benefit of the partner’s spouse, and hence A’s wife can sue B for the performance.
3. Yes. since A’s wife was his legal heir, she should sue B.
4. No. A’s wife is not a stakeholder nor has an interest in the firm’s business. Hence she cannot sue B.

Answer: (b) Yes. the contract was entered into for the benefit of the partner’s spouse, and hence A’s wife can sue B for the performance.

Question 21: Legal Principle:

1. An agreement made without consideration is void. 
2. An agreement made without consideration will not be void if it is in writing, registered, and made on account of natural love and affection or peace and harmony.

Factual Situation: A and her husband B worked in different cities and lived away from each other for most of their time. However, B had promised A that he would pay her Rs. 20,000/- every month so that she could come to meet him over the weekends. B paid the said. amount to A for the first few months but faltered on his promise later. Can A enforce the said promise in a court of law?

1. No As A and his wife were living apart from each other, there was no love and affection between them 
2. Yes. A made a family settlement by maintenance to his wife, which will be counted as a consideration to an oral contract made between husband end wife.
3. No. There is no consideration involved.
4. No. As there was no consideration involved and A and B had not registered in writing, the contract was not enforceable.

Answer: (d) No. As there was no consideration involved and A and B had not registered in writing, the contract was not enforceable.

Question 22: Legal Principle:

1. A bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall be returned to the person delivering them when the purpose is accomplished. The person to whom they are delivered is called the bailee, and the one who delivers is called the bailor.
2. The bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee the faults in the goods bailed, and the bailee is bound to take as much care of the goods bailed to him as a reasonable man would. 

Factual Situation: A lost his mobile phone while travelling on a metro. His friend B sensing his urgency, offered to lend him a spare instrument he owned for the time being. The said instrument had faulty speakers and could not be used properly. The fault had not been disclosed by B to A. Further, A dropped the mobile on the platform, breaking the screen. 

1. B was at fault for not disclosing the defect in the device before lending it to A.
2. A was at fault for not taking proper care of the phone once it was in his possession.
3. Both B and A were at fault for not disclosing the defects and not taking proper care of the device, respectively.
4. No one was at fault. There exists no contract between them.

Answer: (c) Both B and A were at fault for not disclosing the defects and not taking proper care of the device, respectively.

Question 23: Legal Principle:

1. Mere hasty expressions spoken in anger or vulgar abuse to which no hearer would attribute any set purpose to injure the character would not be actionable.
2. Words which merely injure feelings or cause annoyance but do not reflect on character or reputation or tend to cause one to be shunned are not libellous.
3. The words must refer to the plaintiff.

Factual Situation: A and B were two historians called upon to address a gathering of young students to discuss Indian Mythology. A talked about India being a land of diverse cultures which saw the rise of men like Krishna and Ram. On the other hand, B dismissed the existence of the mythology as written in the scriptures due to the lack of evidence. A and the other members of the crowd got enraged and alleged defamation of Indian culture on the part of B. Are the allegations valid?

1. Yes. B defamed Indian culture as a whole.
2. Yes. Since B denied the existence of Indian Gods, that hurt the participants' feelings.
3. No. The allegations are invalid because there was no injury to anyone's character or reputation.
4. No. It was only a discussion, and there was no intention to hurt anyone's feelings.

Answer: (c) No. The allegations are invalid because there was no injury to anyone's character or reputation.

Question 24: Legal Principle:

1. It is the duty of the person delivering a document to give adequate notice to the offer of the printed terms and conditions. If this is not done, the acceptor is not bound by the terms laid down.
2. Where a written contract is signed by the party accepting it, he becomes bound by all its terms, whether he has read it or not.
3. The acceptor is not bound by any term or condition to which he has not agreed or to which his attention was not drawn.

Factual Situation: While parking the car in the shopping complex, the guard gave a ticket to A, for which A had to sign a receipt. The receipt indicated the time, place, and date of parking and other terms and conditions, including that the parking lot authorities will not be liable for any damage or injuries. However, the receipt did not mention the tow-away zone adjacent to the parking lot. The area had a huge board demarcating the two areas and cautioning drivers and travellers to be careful while parking near the tow-away zone. A negligently parked his car in the tow-away zone.

Was A aware of the terms and conditions of parking the cars in the parking lot?

1. Yes. The receipt he signed and received mentioned all such terms and conditions in print.
2. No. The guard did not expressly mention any conditions for parking his car there.
3. Yes. The act of accepting the ticket was that A was aware of the terms of the parking lot.
4. No. There was no notice given to A.

Answer: (a) Yes. The receipt he signed and received mentioned all such terms and conditions in print.

Question 25: Legal Principle:

1. It is the duty of the person delivering a document to give adequate notice to the offer of the printed terms and conditions. The terms do not bind the acceptor if this is not done.
2. Where a written contract is signed by the party accepting it, he becomes bound by all its terms, whether he has read it or not.
3. The acceptor is not bound by any term or condition to which he has not agreed or to which his attention was not drawn. 

Factual Situation: While parking the car in the shopping complex, the guard gave a ticket to A, for which A had to sign a receipt. The receipt indicated the time, place, and date of parking and other terms and conditions, including that the parking lot authorities will not be liable for any damage or injuries. However, the receipt did not mention the tow-away zone adjacent to the parking lot. The area had a huge board demarcating the two areas and cautioning drivers and travellers to be careful while parking near the tow-away zone. A negligently parked his car in the tow-away zone. 

In a general case scenario, will the liability fall on the parking lot authorities if a car is towed away from the said tow-away zone?

1. Yes. According to the receipt, the liability for all damages and injuries will fall on the authorities.
2. No. The authorities expressly excluded themselves from any damage resulting from parking in the tow-away zone.
3. Yes. As the tow-away zone was parked adjacent to the parking lot, the authorities will be reasonably liable for the injuries or damages sustained while parking the car in there.
4. No. Damage resulting from towing away or the car was not the authorities' responsibility.

Answer: (b) No. The authorities expressly excluded themselves from any damage resulting from parking in the tow-away zone.

Question 26: Which of the following courts took up suo moto matter of the Hathras Gang rape question?

1. Allahabad High Court
2. Lucknow High Court
3. Delhi High Court
4. Supreme Court of India

Answer: (a) Allahabad High Court

Question 27: What can be the maximum strength of the judges of the Supreme Court of India after the Cabinet approved the increase of strength in July 2019?

1. 32
2. 34
3. 35
4. 31

Answer: (b) 34

Question 28: Who appoints the Chief justice of the High Court?

1. President of India in consultation with the Chief justice of India and the Governor of the State.
2. Chief Justice of India alone
3. Collegium of Supreme Court judges
4. Prime Minister of India in consultation with the Chief justice of India and the Chief Minister of the State

Answer: (a) President of India in consultation with the Chief justice of India and the Governor of the State.

Question 29: What do you mean by Injuria sine damno?

1. Violation of legal right without damages
2. Damages without violation of the legal right
3. Violation of legal duty without damages
4. Damages without violation of legal duty

Answer: (a) Violation of legal right without damages

Question 30: Within how many years of marriage does the wife's death due to bodily injuries account for dowry death?

1. 5 years
2. 1 year
3. 7 years
4. None of the above

Answer: (c) 7 Years

Question 31: Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

1. 1971
2. 1967
3. 1968
4. 1972

Answer: (c). 1968

Question 32: Police have the power to arrest without a warrant in:

1. Bailable Offence
2. Cognizable Offence
3. Non - Cognizable Offence
4. None of these

Answer: (b). Cognizable Offence

Question 33: Doctrine of Precedent is also called:

1. The doctrine of Stare Decisis.
2. Doctrine of Waiver.
3. The doctrine of Laches.
4. The doctrine of Colorable Legislation.

Answer: (a). The doctrine of Stare Decisis

Question 34: Which one of the following expressions embodies the meaning ‘the scientific study of Law’?

1. Turbulence
2. Jurisprudence
3. Psychology
4. Jurisdiction

Answer: (b). Jurisprudence

Question 35: Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955?

1. Sikhs
2. Jains
3. Parsis
4. Buddhists

Answer: (c). Parsis

Question 36: When a higher tribunal or the same tribunal declares a decision to be wrong in a subsequent case, it is called:

1. Overruling
2. Reversal
3. Status Quo
4. Sustained

Answer: (a). Overruling

Question 37: Adultery is a ground for?

1. Judicial Separation
2. Divorce
3. Both (a). And (b)
4. Restitution of Conjugation Rights

Answer: (c). Both (a). And (b)

Question 38: The expression jus gentium means:

1. That law which with natural reason establishes for all men.
2. That law which natural reason establishes for riparian states.
3. That law which natural reason establishes for land-locked states.
4. That law which natural reason establishes for all women.

Answer: (a). That law which with natural reason establishes for all men.

Question 39: Grave and Sudden Provocation?

1. Question of fact
2. Question of Law
3. Mixed Questions under Law
4. A presumption under Law

Answer: (a). Question of fact

Question 40: For the offence of abetment?

1. It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed.
2. It is necessary that the act abetted should be committed Partially.
3. It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.
4. None of the Above.

Answer: (c). It is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed

Conclusion

We hope this blog clears all your doubts about the MH CET Law Legal Reasoning Questions. Happy Reading!